Hand 1 from a B player:

Regional Tournament, Matchpoints

Vul none

Playing 2/1 Game Force:

You hold:

S   AJ10xxx

H   10xx

D  Q98x

C   ------------

You open 2S in second seat and partner bids 2NT.  You are playing Ogust.

After years of playing Ogust, I never before have needed to respond with a void.  I was concerned about wasted values in my partner's hand in clubs, so I responded 3C, bad/bad.  In retrospect, even at the table, I realize I should have liked something about my hand and bid either 3D, 3H, or even 3S.

Question: How do you respond to Ogust holding a void? Does it matter what suit the void is in (major vs. minor)?

John Burgener

While you should avoid opening a weak two bid with a side void, I agree you should open this hand 2S in second position. While I am not a proponent of Ogust responses, I do play them with some partners though usually with different responses than normal. Playing standard responses I would answer that this hand is good-good AJ10 is a very good honor holding when you know partner has at least a tolerance or better for spades. Partners possible wastage in clubs is offset by the fact this is less than a seven looser hand with two chances for a secondary fit.

Mark Boswell  

I would bid 3H showing a good hand and a bad suit.  It is not perfect, but I think your hand is too good for bad/bad.  You need 2 of the top three honors to make a bid showing that your suit is good.

Tom Kniest
I would answer good hand, bad suit.  6-4 is excellent playing distribution, and the hand has an A and intermediates, both in and outside the trump suit.  In any event, after my 3C bid, I would have bid 4S over 3S since partner has shown an invitational hand and I would always accept with this hand, knowing my partner's invitation was based on a fit.

Roger Lord

I do not play Ogust, and I would ask why a partnership should guess whether the hands mesh rather than describe the hands with features and/or real suit.

If you could confirm that a 2 NT response guarantees at least tolerance for opener's suit, I would say this had warrants a game-going bid.  On that basis, I would make the same bid over an Ogust 2NT as over a Feature-showing bid -  would jump to 4 Diamonds, promising a diamond suit, but also willingness to play 4 Spades.  Responder might hold Kx, Ax, AKxxx, Jxxx, with which 6 Diamonds would be the optimum contract whereas with Kx, Ax,Jxxx, Axxxx would be happy if we could make 4 Spades.

Tom Oppenheimer

Gone fishing this month!

Nancy Popkin

I would have responded good suit and good hand. Good suit usually entails two of the top three honors (AK, KQ, or AQ) but it should also include AJ10. Imagine partner has a small doubleton. If you can bring in the suit with any 3-2 break in that suit for one loser by taking two finesses (75%) it has to be considered a good suit. The only losing position with a 3-2 break is KQx offside. A good hand includes an ace or king outside. (Some people only answer good hand if they have 8 or more points outside, but I believe that is too restrictive.) In this case, I have a void which is a first-round control, just like an ace. Also, I like being 6-4 with a queen in my 4-card suit. I don't think it matters in which suits the points occur, since we can't know where our partner's points lie.

Rod Van Wyk

I would answer 3D - good suit, bad hand. Even though a "good suit" originally needed 2 of the top 3 honors, this one is good by today's standards. The hand could be good if it meshes well with partner's, but there is no way to know that, and if partner is interested in notrump the void is a liability.

Karen Walker  

The “good hand” responses are the weakest part of the Ogust convention. A good-hand response usually implies an ace or king outside, but partner won't know where it is, and that's often critical information. I would not call this a good hand, but since the evaluation of your suit quality should vary with the vulnerability, I would call it a good suit for a white weak 2-bid.
 
I don't know of any conventional Ogust response that shows a void. You could agree that a jump to 4 of an unbid suit shows a void, but you wouldn't want to make that bid unless you had a good hand AND a good suit. When is the last time you opened a white weak two-bid that would qualify for that?

Milt Zlatic

I've seen many variations of Ogust but none cover voids. You have to lie about something, so I would reply that I have a good suit. I wouldn't reply that I had a good hand since I have nothing but a dubious entry to my hand.

Playing 2/1 Game Force:

You are the dealer:

S   AK8xxx

H   x

D   x

C   AJ9xx

The auction has proceeded:

1S      P      1NT(forcing)     P

2C     2H    3C                  3H

?

Questions:  Do you agree with the 2C bid?  What is your next bid after 3H?

John Burgener

My answer to the first question is “yes” this is a little under a jump shift to 3C, the only other possibility. Now I am happy to bid 4C, which I play is RKC for clubs. Otherwise 4C if played as forcing. I think it be. It takes as little as a red ace and a high club honor to make this a good slam or at worst on finesse.

Mark Boswell

I agree with 2C.  There is too high of a probability that clubs is the right place to play.  If you rebid 2S, you only describe 1 card in your hand beyond what you showed in the opening bid.  Over 3H, I bid 4S.  This bid must mean that I have 6 spades and a big Club fit like this hand.  The problem with 3S is that it is not forcing. Although slam is possible, I think partner will need to take a further move if we are to get there.

Tom Kniest
Yes, I agree with the 2C bid.  Now I bid 3S to take the opportunity to show the 6th spade.  If that ends the auction, so be it, but I think I'll get another chance to bid.  Pard's 3C could have been competitive, under pressure, but at least I know he has a real club fit, so I want to play in a black game, but the right one.  I'm showing big playing strength with this auction and don't expect the auction to end here.  If the opponents bid over 3S, I'll respect a double by partner and defend.

Roger Lord

2Clubs s the best natural bid available, even though the hand offers  great potential if a fit is uncovered.  Someone else will bid before there are 3 passes.

Over opponent's 3 Hearts, I would ask for Key Cards, assuming that our method allows an answer of either zero or one to be at a level no higher than 5 Clubs.

Tom Oppenheimer

Gone fishing this month!

Nancy Popkin

Yes, I agree with the 2C bid. I need more points for a 3C bid (I can't guarantee game). Over 3H, I would bid 4H for three reasons. First, I take that bid away from my left-hand opponent. But, more importantly, I give partner an opportunity to bid 4S on a doubleton since he or she has denied 3-card support already. If partner's raise is based on a minimum, would you prefer to play at the 4-level in spades or at the 5-level in clubs? Third, 4H tends to imply shortness in hearts or a control, informing partner in case there is more bidding. It gives more information to partner so he or she can be included in the decision-making. If partner's raise to 3 clubs is based on a maximum, we may even reach slam.

Rod Van Wyk

Yes. Partner now shows 4 or more clubs with a decent hand, so I will bid 5 Clubs.

Karen Walker

The hand is thin on high-card points, but it has so much playing strength that I would have bid 3C over 1NT. In your actual auction, a 3S bid now should show extra values, but since partner has shown the club fit, I would insist on game and bid 4S. Partner should be able to figure out that I have “real” clubs (at least 4) and six non-solid spades.
 

En Xie
I prefer 4D as Roman key card Blackwood in this case. With some partners, 4D would be my choice. Without the agreement, my second choice would be 4H, we are going to be in the game anyway. On the way, you might let pard know you have slam interest.
 

Milt Zlatic

I think that 2C is the right bid. This hand is too good for a simple rebid of 2S. I would now bid 3S (that should be forcing). I believe that partner should have 5 clubs (or 4 very good ones) since I might have only 3 clubs. I could bid Blackwood but a 1430 response could get us too high. This hand is a perfect example for switching the meaning of 5C and 5D if the suit is clubs.

Hand 3 from a B Player

Matchpoints

Vul all

Playing 2/1 Game Force:

You hold:

S   Axxxxx

H   Ax

D   AQxx

C   x

Auction

LHO      Partner      RHO       You      

1D        1S              X*          ?

* X = negative double

Question: What is your call?

John Burgener

Two Diamonds showing a fit and asking “How good is your overcall?” If partner says minimum I would signoff in 4S and take a push to 5S. If anything other than minimum I will make at least one slam try of RKC. Secondary question how does pard show a minimum over more competition: if it is a double then redouble shows first round Diamond control and if 2S is available to partner that is the minimum response if the level is increased then and only then is Pass the minimum reply.

Mark Boswell

I would bid 2D, the only available cue bid. I would not object if a partner were to redouble holding this hand if we did not have a conventional meaning to the redouble.

Tom Kniest
4C - this is a splinter and a slam try.  If you just had a high card raise to game, you would have bid 2D first and then bid a game over partner's minimum rebid.  Here, you're interested in bigger things; why else would you be describing your hand, which can also benefit the opponents?  A hand this good should not be a surprise to your partner when one opponent has opened and the other has shown some values with the negative double.  With today's light openers and competitive environment, you shouldn't assume partner is broke.  Slam is probably laydown opposite Kxxxx  Kxx x xxxx and many other hands.  Here, the stiff diamond is the key to slam; some partners will appreciate it and show a red control below game.

Roger Lord

4 Clubs.  I hope partner can evaluate a singleton diamond and either the Club Ace or a red-suit King.

Tom Oppenheimer 

Gone fishing this month!

Nancy Popkin

I would bid 4 clubs (a singleton or void for spades). Right away partner knows about the singleton, that I fit spades, and that I have enough high cards to insist on game across from a simple one-level overcall. It also preempts the opponents. LHO would have to bid 4H to show a fit whereas if I had bid 3D, they could insert a 3H bid without much timidity.

Rod Van Wyk

I'll start with 2 Diamonds. Partner probably doesn't have a very good hand since both opponents are bidding, but I am not stopping short of 4 Spades.

Karen Walker

4C (splinter), although I think I'm wasting my energy. Unless one or both opponents have psyched, I doubt we have a slam or that we could find it even if it's there. The 4C bid, however, shows values and may help partner assess the situation if the opponents compete to the 5-level.

En Xie

I'd bid 4C. 4NT would be too strong. 4S would be underbid. I don't like 2D or 2H bid either. By bidding 4C, partner will know you have strong hand, 4+ support, and singleton in club. With little extra, partner might make control bid of 4D or 4H. Then you might reach slam.
 

 

Milt Zlatic
First of all, don't even think about a club splinter. Your hand is too good for that action. Why not make a simple redouble, even if this shows a high honor? You might find out a little more about the distribution if you keep the bidding low.

John Burgener

I would consider opening 1NT and never criticize it on this hand. But I would open it 1S. For these reasons. I do not want to loose this spades suit and 2-suiters have a “suit contract” advantage. Finally there is the ease of rebidding. Just continue on with 2NT showing 16 or 17 HCPs. Most times that will work well.

Mark Boswell

I agree with opening 1S.  1NT has too many flaws (shape, great spades, and only Qx in hearts).    I would pass 2D, although I know in real life that did not turn out well.

Tom Kniest

My answer here assumes that I only have 5 spades.  I would bid 2NT and expect to play 3D if pard has the diamond bust hand.  Pard should expect exactly this distribution, but I might possibly be 5323...but that hand might have rebid 2NT.

Roger Lord

The first question is too easy.  With a 2-suiter, I open 1 Spade.  A tougher question would be what to open with the same high-cards, but with 3 hearts and 3 clubs.

When  I first read the second question, I automatically considered making a game try (such as 3 Hearts).  After "reviewing the situation," not only do I retreat to a pass, I hope to get this hand in a tournament for a high score.  Partner most likely holds a small singleton spade.  We don't fit and our tricks do not add to 9 in NoTrump or eleven in Diamonds.

By the way, the decision is easier with our adjunct to 2-Over-1 system: 1 Spade-Pass-3 Diamonds showing diamonds, invitational-non-forcing, no spade support.  Over that 3 Diamond response, opener would, of course, bid 3 NT.

Tom Oppenheimer

Gone fishing this month!

Nancy Popkin

Rod Van Wyk

I open 1 NT. Otherwise, subsequent bids are frequently too weak or too strong. With the auction shown, I believe 2D should be passed.

Karen Walker
I open 1S (assuming I have only 5 spades). At IMPs, the diamond fit and good spades would talk me into stretching with a 2NT rebid. At matchpoints, though, I would pass 2D. Partner needs a perfect hand to make a game, and if he doesn't have it, 2D might have been our last chance at a plus score.
 

En Xie
Without any further agreement, I'd pass 2D. Personally, I like to bid 2H to show that kind of hands after partner's 2D rebid. I am sure not many people will agree with me though. 2H here shouldn't be a natural bid. Because if you have 4Hs, you should bid 2H first,not 2C. The question is that it's better to play 2h to show 3 card suit or 2 card suit. If 2h shows 3, then your hand likely would be 5-3-1-4. I believe,without fit or tolerance in partner's suit,it's better not to move on. Even if you agree with me on the treatment, I still think it's very close call between pass and 2H. In team games, I tend to bid 2H.

Milt Zlatic

1) Get it off your chest and bid 1NT, otherwise you'll be playing catch up. I'd only open 1S if I was going to raise partner's expected 1NT response to 2NT, but I'm not good enough for that action.
2) See what happens if you open 1S? Do you now rebid 2NT or raise diamonds or pass? I would probably pass since partner didn't jump in diamonds.

John Burgener

Are you asking what to bid? Since you are showing both hands, are you asking how to get to 4 or 6 spades? Well from here you cannot get there. 4S is possible but that is a cue bid. To reach a club slam that will almost surely fail. From here settle for the poor scoring 5C. Now let's backup. The right call is double instead of 3C. It is true this is not normal shape for a double but the importance of showing the 4-card major is so important it must be done. If partner bids diamonds try to scramble to clubs, knowing that no major game or slam is available. This will work over the long run and here you hit gold. After the Double the auction will likely go:

3H - 3S - P - 4C - P - 5C - P - 6S all pass. Doesn't this answer the question really being asked?

Mark Boswell

Here is my auction, although it is easier to find when you are looking at both hands! 

1H-P-2H-3C*

3H-3S**-P-4S

P-P-P

*    With a two card length difference between spades and clubs, bid the clubs.

** Since I am a passed hand that could not overcall 1S, this must be based on 4 spades and a big club fit.

Tom Kniest

X - these hands can be uncomfortable, but bidding 3C might end the auction when we have a spade fit.  With a 3C bid, you might still find spades as long as lefty bids hearts again, allowing partner to make a responsive X showing competitive values with some length in the other suits.  To double and correct 3D to 4C is not taking a big chance; if the opponents are bidding hearts and partner doesn't have spades, then he has a club tolerance.  The big sin is to miss spades.

Roger Lord

The roads leading to 4 Spades are hot directed by a GPS (Global Positioning System).  The second bid double is an option.  The double would win on this deal, as East surely would leap to 4 Spades.  East probably would make this contract, and East-West would be un position to double a sacrifice at 5 Hearts.

Tom Oppenheimer

Gone fishing this month!

Nancy Popkin

As West, I would have made a responsive double to show cards (implying spades). Most people only use responsive doubles when their partner has made a take-out double and the opponents have bid and raised a suit. But, again, I find that too restrictive, as this hand demonstrates. Without responsive doubles, the spade suit could be lost. But, with the 4C bid, East could bid 4 spades on the way to 5C possibly. But, there's the rub. No one ever knows if 4S is to play or if it is a cue bid. With responsive doubles the partnership KNOWS.

Karen Walker
Double by East is a death wish, so he was pretty much stuck with the 3C bid. Even if East had risked a double, you probably aren't going to find 4S anyway, since West's hand is too soft to jump to 4S and East isn't nearly strong enough to raise a 3S bid. Your auction worked out okay because West got to show his fit and values and, assuming East carries on to 5C, you've found a game, even if it's not the perfect one. All declarer has to do to make 5C is find the spade queen, which may be easy and/or obvious after you play out the other suits.

En Xie

I'd bid 3C after 2H and 4S after partner's 4C. 4S should be natural with four of the suit. Partner can bid 5c if he can't stand with 4S.

Rod Van Wyk

3 Clubs by East, responsive double by West, 4S by East.

If East doesn't have a 4-card spade suit to bid, West should insist on clubs.