|
|
February
2009
Ask
the Expert
|
North's
Hand: 98
A9
AK87
Q9652
North
is the dealer. The bidding has proceeded:
N:1C
E:P S: 1H* W: P
*
a 1/1 bid, shows 6 points minimum, unlimited.
What
is North's next bid? |
John
Burgener
First
a comment about the problem: I strongly disagree with
the opening bid. I would've opened 1D, then you have
an easy 2C rebid.
To
the actual question, I would still rebid 2C. A rebid
of 1NT; (this is steering of the responses you get
first of all, thus limiting the objectivity of the
panel's responses) but yes, the low doubleton in spades
is a big problem. Ace doubleton of hearts, normal.
By the way, with the 1NT rebid have you have given
partner captaincy and even lied to him about your
shape? Not good for future decisions partner
must make based on his knowledge of your bidding style.
|
Mark
Boswell
The
opening bid is the cause of this problem. This
hand should be opened 1D and when partner bids a major,
you now bid 2C. Partner should know that this is a
possible pattern for your hand. If you open
1C as you did, partner will often bid a major, and
you will have no good rebid. If you held a gun
to my head and forced me against my will to open 1C,
I would rebid 1NT. |
Tom
Kniest
Since I've been strapped with a 1C opener, I rebid
1NT. Normally, I open this hand 1D because lefty
often overcalls in a major and pard doubles, leaving
me poorly placed if I opened 1C. |
Roger
Lord
Opening
1 Club is clearly wrong. Opening 1 Diamond leaves
2 Clubs as a convenient rebid. |
Tom
Oppenheimer
It
is appropriate to open this hand one diamond rather
than one club in order to avoid responding one no
trump with a small doubleton spade. This makes
all rebids on the hand easier and because of the quality
of the diamond suit, you prefer a diamond lead from
partner if you end up defending. If the quality
of the club suit is much better than the diamonds,
I might open one club and plan to rebid 2 clubs. |
Nancy
Popkin
Yes,
we got ourselves in a bit of a dilemma here. To avoid
that in the future, always think "What am I going
to rebid if partner responds 1D, 1H, or 1S to my opening
bid?" In this case, we are worried about what
to respond
if partner bids 1 heart in particular, but also if
he responds 1 spade. To avoid that problem in the
future, we should open 1D instead of 1C. Then we can
rebid 2C over 1S. Partner should not expect us to
have 5 diamonds and 4 clubs necessarily because she
knows the problem, too. |
Rod
Van Wyk
Having
opened 1C, I would rebid 1NT to show the balanced
12 - 14 HCPs. However, with a good 4-card diamond
suit, weak clubs, and double spades, I would open
1D and then rebid 2C over the 1H response. |
Karen
Walker
The doubleton heart is not
an issue. You'd like to have a spade stopper,
but that's not a deal breaker for 1NT -- and anything
is better than rebidding that awful club suit.
Some would open the "prepared" 1D and rebid 2C, but
that strategy has problems, too. |
En
Xie
I'd bid
1NT. To rebid your clubs suit you need 6 clubs in
the suit. To bid 2D you need at least 16 HCP. 1NT
is not a perfect bid, but it's the best bid available
now. Personally, I prefer open 1D with the hand,
then after partner's 1H, I'd bid 2C.
|
| Milt Zlatic is on a well-deserved
vacation and will return in early March. |
|
The
South hand is: AKQxxx
xxx
KJ10
A
The
bidding has proceeded:
N
E S
W
P
P 1S
P
2C*
P ?
Clearly,
game should make, but slam is also a possibility.
I am hoping the Experts will determine if a 2S rebid
is forcing or not. Is 3S forcing? Is 2NT
forcing? Does 3 Clubs show length? I have
not idea how to bid this hand. Help! |
John
Burgener
First
of all 2C is suggesting it is conventional. It might
be helpful to know what that conventional agreement
is. Drury of some form? Ok, originally Drury was a
question asking if pard had full opener or not. 2D
said less than opener, 2S was full opener, 3S was
full opener with extra spades, and 2NT was full opener
with only 4 spades. Drury did not even promise a fit.
Today the most common is Reverse Drury and it shows
a fit! Here the rebid of 2S is minimum or sub-minimum.
3S is an attempt to make partner make the last guess,
2NT is extra values balanced (17 to 19 HCPs) 3C would
show club length.
I
play Reverse Drury. My rebid would be 2D as my second
suit, partner can treat this as a “help suit” and
if he then jumps in spades or raises diamonds or cuebids
in hearts, I would then cuebid clubs, after that pard
must get us to slam. I have shown my hand. If partner
cuebids hearts I could use RKC Blackwood, but would
not. I might bid 5S telling of extras and again letting
partner decide. |
Mark
Boswell
Since
you are going to force this hand to game, and your
hand is worth a slam try, your next call should be
4C, which must be a splinter bid. You should
try for slam anytime when if your partner has a perfect
minimum, slam is a lay down. xxxx Ax AQxx
xxx would be such a hand. The splinter bid allows
partner to evaluate his hand for slam purposes (club
points are not good). |
Tom
Kniest
Most rebid 2D with a hand that's a full opener, but
wouldn't accept a limit raise; thus 2S would be the
weakest bid and non forcing. I play fit showing
jumps by passed hands; thus, if partner had a hand
like Jxxx Ax AQxxx xx, he could bid 3D
over 1S and the only question now is if you bid six
or the laydown 7. With the hand given, I rebid
4C - obviously a slam try since I could have bid game
on my own. Pard will focus on his red suits
and maybe we can still get there. If he doesn't
have a heart control, we're not getting any higher
than 4.
My methods over Drury include 2NT by opener as Jacoby
2NT, and we use the same responses, although modified
from basic Jacoby. |
Roger
Lord
Whether
2 Clubs is Drury, reverse Drury, or natural, I would
jump to 3 Spades, 100% forcing. |
Tom
Oppenheimer
I
assume that 2 clubs is Drury showing spade support.
Most of us play anything other than 2 spades is 100%
forcing. You might start investigating for slam
with a 2 diamond bid. I like a gadget here where
2 no trump by opener is forcing like jacoby and asks
the 2 club bidder for further description of the hand.
A 3 level bid is a singleton or void. A
4 level bid is a good second suit. 3 spades
would be extras with no shortness and 4 spades would
show the weakest possible hand. Wouldn't you
love it if partner showed up with a singleton or void
in hearts? |
Nancy
Popkin
2C
is the old fashioned drury (we do not know if partner
has 3 or 4 trumps, but it is about the point range
of 10-12). Certainly if partner held xxx, AKQ, Qxx,
xxxx, we would have a good chance of making slam,
barring a bad trump break or a ruff. But, even though
there are other holdings that would produce slam,
I was always taught to not play for the perfect hand,
and never play for the worst hand. So, it would be
best to know what is forcing so we could extract info
from partner. Since I sent in this problem, I
have no clue. |
Rod
Van Wyk
After
partner shows a limit raise, a sign-off at 4S seems
adequate with this hand. Using Reverse Drury, 2S shows
a minimum or light opener. I play a 2D rebid as a
general force, asking partner to tell me more. That
is the way
I would start if I wanted to probe for the perfect
fit for slam with this hand. |
Karen
Walker
2C is Drury? If so, a 2S rebid shows a sub-minimum
opener and 3S is invitational. 2NT and 3C are
forcing one round and can be treated as natural game
tries.
You can also agree to use opener's 2NT rebid as an
asking bid -- responder answers with the same set
of responses as those after a Jacoby 2NT (3 of a new
suit shows a singleton, 3S shows a good hand, 4S shows
a dead minimum). That agreement might help you
get to a slam, but I think it's a remote possibility.
|
En
Xie
Assuming 2C shows limit raise in spades, I'd bid 2D
with the hand, showing at least game potential hand.
I play any bid but 2S as forcing and 2NT as a special
asking bid.
|
Milt Zlatic is
on a well-deserved vacation and will return in early
March. |
W
is dealer, N/S vulnerable
West
AK87
xx
xx
AQxxx
East
Qxxx
xx
AK10xxx
x
The
bidding has proceeded:
N
E
S W
1C
P
1D*
3H P (or X?)
P
3S**(X**/P) P
P
Questions:
1)
How should the bidding go for East-West?
2)
*for 1D our agreement is to bid up the line, even
with a weak hand with 6-9 HCP or more.
3)
I assume a double of 3H directly by West is a penalty
double. Please comment if it means something
else.
4)
3S** by East should be forcing, showing at least
a 4-card suit and probably an opening hand or better.
Please comment on the bid.
5)
If West were to pass 3H and East were to Double,**
instead of bidding 3S, would this be a so called
"strength double" showing about 9-10 HCP
and not a penalty double or a negative double?
How do you play the double here?
|
John
Burgener
Using
your system West must pass over 3H as pard may be
very weak. Double shows much more than this. 3S by
East was a serious overbid and forcing to game. So
the 4S bid by West was easy. Did this get to an easy
making game? Great but the bidding was lucky and caused
by the rigid adherence to the “bidding-up-the-line”
rule. With less than 10HCPs, showing your major, at
perhaps your only opportunity, is paramount. Then
the 3S raise by West would be justified. Then getting
to 4S is reasonable. At matchpoints duplicate, taking
chances has its place and the results are important
because winning is measure most visible. Having clear
agreements that allow the most likely top scoring
contracts to be reached and for the fewest disasters
is the best way to reach these goals. Bidding diamonds
on this actual hand will get partner off to the best
lead sometimes, but it is not the best course. |
Mark
Boswell
This
is a perfect example of why should have an agreement
that diamonds will be passed in favor of a major without
game going values. Being preempted out of diamonds
is tolerable. Being preempted out of a major
is not. The way you play, East had to treat
his hand as forcing to game (or four of a minor) which
it should be the way you play it or the way I play
it. A double by East the second round would
be for penalties. |
Tom
Kniest
The
first agreement of bidding up the line with a one
bid hand should be discarded; bid the major right
away with a weak hand. Thus a hand like Qxxx xx KJ10xxx
x, bid a spade and rebid 3D over 1NT - showing a weak
hand with at least a six card minor.
Not everyone would play 3HX as penalty, but that would
be the standard meaning. With this type of hand, West
should pass and East should reopen with a double,
showing shortness and values; if partner can't rebid
spades or NT, the diamonbds are robust enough to rebid.
Raise 3S to 4.
|
Roger
Lord
The
best way to play double by opener is for takeout with
better than a minimum opening bid. With the
minimum-range hand of the question, opener should
pass over 3 Hearts. Then, responder will reopen
with a double, to accommodate partner in case he has
a "trap pass" with heart length and strength.
(Opener could not have doubled for penalties), and
to allow opener to be if he was not trapping.
Opener then bids 3 Spades, over which responder is
happy to go to game. |
Tom
Oppenheimer
West
hand should pass 3 hearts as it is too weak for any
other action. The East hand should balance with a
double, West bids 3 spades and east raises to 4. |
Nancy
Popkin
My partner and I play that double over 3H by either
hand is takeout. Then the other hand can convert if
they so choose. So, if the bidding had gone 1C, pass,
1D, 1H, X, the double would show 4 spades or extra
value or both. However, when the bid is 3H instead
of 1H, obviously West should have a really good hand.
Although the West hand is decent, it would not qualify
for a double. So, after West passes 3H, East should
reopen with a double usually showing shortness in
hearts and about 10 or more points. This caters to
West converting the double to penalty, rebidding clubs,
bidding spades, raising diamonds, or bidding 3NT.
Obviously, West would bid 3 spades, and East would
have to decide whether to pass or bid 4 spades. At
imps, he should bid 4; at matchpoints, it is a decision.
|
Rod
Van Wyk
West
should pass over 3H. I play double for penalty. Then
East should balance with a double to show his values.
West now bids 3S, and East may raise to game. |
Karen
Walker
West has to pass 3H, as a double (whether pure penalty
or not) would show a bigger hand. East doesn't
have enough to bounce back in with 3S, as this would
be forcing to game. A double by East would
show values (usually at least 10+ pts.) and is essentially
for takeout. It will be difficult to get to
game, but a somewhat pushy double by East will at
least get you to 3S.
An easier auction would be:
1C
1S
(3H) 3S 4S
|
En
Xie
I'd double with responder's hand. After opener's 3S
bid, responder can bid 4S. Responder's 3S bid seems a
slightly overbid but not unreasonable.
|
Milt Zlatic is
on a well-deserved vacation and will return in early
March. |
W
is dealer, E/W vulnerable
North
AQ
Jxxx
KQ
KJ10xx
East
10xx
AKQ109
A9xx
8
E/W
Pass throughout
North
South
1NT
2D Jacoby Transfer
3H*
(2H/3C) 4D**
(4C**, 3NT***)
4H
5C****(4NT/6H)
5S/6H/6NT
*3H
= super accept with 4-card support
**4D
(or 4C) = Is this a second suite or a cue bid?
***
3NT = Julie 3NT, slam try, asking opener to cue
bid up the line
4H
= to play
****5C
= cuebid, may be 2nd round control (3rd suit by
responder here should show "shortness"
a singleton or a void; 4NT = Key
Card 0314 for Hearts; 6H is to play
Questions:
1)
How should the bidding go?
2)
What is the meaning of a new suit bid by the "transferer"
at the 3- or 4-level. Is it a cuebid or a
second suit?
3)
Whenever you start cue bidding (after agreeing on
the trump suit), at the 3, 4, or 5 level, do you
promise 1st round control, or could it show either
1st or 2nd round control?
4)
Do you play "Julie 3NT", as described
above?
|
John
Burgener
While
not the perfect shape, this is a reasonable opening
1NT bid. The Jacoby Transfer to hearts is above reproach.
The 3H super accept is too rich for me on 4 to the
J, but if my partner made it, I would show my second
suit, which is diamonds; again that makes the opener's
hand better, is a 4S bid in order? Going beyond game
when I have already pushed with this poor suit seems
too much. Someone must make a move beyond game, after
a 1NT–super accept of the heart transfer by partner
the South hand (all the top heart honors, diamond
ace, the club singleton) has the cards to make such
a move beyond game or even a direct jump to slam reasonable. |
Mark
Boswell
After
the super acceptance, I believe you should put of
the breaks. You lack aces, you have a minimum
for your call, and you may have duplicated values
(the J of hearts may add little). If partner
cue bids (or if the new bid is a second suit) rather
than bids Blackwood, he must be short somewhere (more
duplicated values-clubs this time). I will retreat
to 5H over any 5 level cue bid. The slam is
only so so. The slam is not good with a trump lead,
and only a little better with a diamond lead.
Only with a club or a spade lead does it become good.
In match points there is another good reason not to
bid slam. You have opened this hand one NT with
2-4-2-5 distribution. Not everyone will.
You are playing hearts from the right side for the
hand and many will not. You have a greater chance
for an over trick from your side vs. the non-no trump
openers. Scoring 30 points more than others
is as good as by 530 in MPs. If you go down
in the slam, you will have a bottom or near bottom.
|
Tom
Kniest
If
I had the south hand and heard partner rebid 3H over
my transfer, showing length and extra strength, I
would just RKC and stop in 5 if partner was aceless;
otherwise, I'd bid just 6. 4D/3H is a cuebid, not
necessarily the A, but denying a black control. However,
North might be sheepish about his 3H bid, so I think
the south hand has enough to take control. It seems
like North could also RKC over 4D - South must have
good hearts if no black control, but rather than waiting
for partner to take control when you already know
the answer, just go for it...and avoid those hesitations
that result in slow Blackwood calls and director calls
and sometimes committees.
Yes, 3NT is waiting, leaving cheap room for a cuebid
- you've already disclosed a nine card plus fit, so
it isn't natural.
|
Roger
Lord
Our
auction would proceed: 1C - 1H - 3H - 4D - 4S - 4NT
- 5C - 6H - P
Five
clubs would designate one Keycard (1 or fewer).
Instead,
if you open 1 NT, then over responder's 2D, you should
bid 2H, NOT 3H. Then, 3D would be natural and
forcing. The auction might continue 3S by opener,
4C by responder, 4H by opener (clarifying his fit
for hearts rather than diamonds), Roman Keycard Blackwood
by responder, answer 1 Keycard, then 6H. |
Tom
Oppenheimer
I
would not super accept with 4 bad trump and a hand
lacking controls. However, after a super accept a
new suit is a cuebid and after partner cuebids spades
I would use blackwood. I am not familiar with Julie
3 No trump.
|
Nancy
Popkin
I
like 3NT after 3H, asking for cue-bids because I do
not have 1st round control of clubs, and I would like
to know if partner has it. In answer to question 2,
I prefer new suit bids to be cue-bids (we already
found a fit;
now we need controls). Once partner denies the club
ace, I now know that she has more points that can
be in diamonds. It's still going to be a tough auction
to get to slam, however. Finally, the hand belongs
in hearts, not
no trump. The ace of diamonds provides a place for
the spade queen when we are playing in hearts. In
no trump, that is not our only problem.
|
Rod
Van Wyk
Over
North's 3H, 4D by South shows 1st round control with
slam interest. It denies 1st round control of the
bypassed suits, spades and clubs. If North now bids
4H, then 5C by South is 2nd round club control. However
North should cuebid 4S over 4D. 4H is a useless bid. |
Karen
Walker
After a two-level acceptance of the transfer, responder's
new suit at the three level is a second suit.
After the super-accept, responder's new suit at the
four-level is a control bid for slam.
After the 4D cuebid, North should bid 4S. His
retreat to 4H tells partner he has nothing to cuebid,
so South should give up and pass 4H. It looks
like North did the partnership a favor, though, as
if he cuebids 4S, South will probably Blackwood and
get to what looks to be a pretty ugly slam.
Cuebidding sequences like this one usually identify
first-round controls, but there are some benefits
to playing Italian-style cuebids (where a cuebid shows
a first or second-round control). The main benefit
is that it often stops the cuebidding sequence early
in favor of Blackwood. There are a lot of inferences
to discuss, though, so I probably wouldn't trot this
out with a casual partner.
|
En
Xie
As opener, I'd bid 2H instead of 3H. It's a 7 losers
hand, 3H seems an overbid to me. The new suit
bid by transfer-er at 3 level is a second suit. The
new suit bid at 4 level is cuebid.
|
Milt Zlatic is
on a well-deserved vacation and will return in early
March. |
E
is dealer
I
am South holding:
West
KQJx
9xxxx
Jxx
K
N
E S
W
1H P
1S
P 2H
P P
X
P ?
What's
my call?
|
John
Burgener
Ouch,
this looks bad. The opponents are in a great position
to get a top and partner and I, a bottom. An overtrick
is more likely than our beating 2H doubled. So what
to bid; pard has made a takeout double in the balancing
seat. He knows you likely are long in hearts so he
wants you to leave the double in if you can, he has
clubs, diamonds, maybe some spades, a very few hearts
perhaps none and about 10 HCPs. You know your partner;
will he allow you to bid and play in 2S, if so, that
is your best chance for a plus score. I would make
that bid, unless I was sure that pard would not sit
for it, and then I would bid 3 diamonds and hope for
only a small minus. Maybe they will go on to 3H this
you have a chance to beat. The Law of Total Tricks
is now on your side and your small hearts are now
a big irritant to East. |
Mark
Boswell
Partner
failed to bid a take out double for the minors, failed
to bid an unusual 2NT, (failed to bid a sandwich NT
if you play it), and failed to reopen with 2NT for
the minors. Partner does not have the minors
so looking at the hearts you have he must have spades.
Bid 2S. |
Tom
Kniest
2S
- partner had a flaw which kept him from doubling
the first time, so it must be some spade length.
If pard corrects that to 3C, then I'll correct
to 3D.
|
|
Roger
Lord
Bid
2 S. The doubler may pass with 3 or more spades,
or he may bid 2NT with 2 or fewer spades to allow
partner to choose, over which he will go to 3D. |
Tom
Oppenheimer
Partner
did not double or bid no trump showing the minors
at his first opportunity therefore it is likely he
holds spades. I would bid 2 spades. The quality of
the heart suit is very poor making sitting and converting
this double to penalty very risky business.
|
Nancy
Popkin
I
am not passing for penalties because we are out-gunned.
Over 1H, P, 1S, partner did not make a take-out double.
Therefore, he does not have a good hand, or he does
not have the perfect distribution of at least 4-4
in the minors, or both. So, my inclination is to bid
2S in case partner has at least 3 spades and 1 or
fewer hearts. I feel we are going for a number on
this hand, so why go to the 3-level? If partner can't
stand it, he can run to his
5-card suit. If it's clubs, I'll correct to diamonds.
My biggest fear is that they will make 2 hearts doubled.
I would love to find out what the whole layout was. |
Rod
Van Wyk
2S.
Partner has spades and the minors, unless he slept
through the 1st round. |
Karen
Walker
2S. What's the vulnerability? If we're
red, partner should have an awfully good hand to be
butting into this non-fitting auction, but if that's
the case, then why didn't he double at his first turn?
Red or white, however, I don't see how he can have
great length in the minors, so he must have at least
moderate spade length. |
En
Xie
I'd bid 2S with the hand, hoping partner will know
that I have only 4 spades by the fact that I didn't
overcall 1S. The 2S bid also denies 4 cards in the
minor. Partner can still bid his/her minor suit if
there is no fit in spades. I'd bid 3D if partner
bid 3C. |
Milt Zlatic is
on a well-deserved vacation and will return in early
March. |
|
Need to tell us something new & newsworthy? Send mail to newnews@unit143.org
Comments about this page? Send mail to designteam@unit143.org
Page last modified
Thursday, 02-Jul-2009 23:17:23 CDT
total hits
|
|
|