February 2009

Ask the Expert

Hand 1 from a New Player in a Newcomer Game:

North's Hand:  98   A9 AK87 Q9652

North is the dealer.  The bidding has proceeded:

N:1C  E:P   S: 1H*  W: P

* a 1/1 bid, shows 6 points minimum, unlimited.

What is North's next bid?

John Burgener

First a comment about the problem: I strongly disagree with the opening bid. I would've opened 1D, then you have an easy 2C rebid.

To the actual question, I would still rebid 2C. A rebid of 1NT; (this is steering of the responses you get first of all, thus limiting the objectivity of the panel's responses) but yes, the low doubleton in spades is a big problem. Ace doubleton of hearts, normal. By the way, with the 1NT rebid have you have given partner captaincy and even lied to him about your shape?  Not good for future decisions partner must make based on his knowledge of your bidding style.

Mark Boswell

The opening bid is the cause of this problem.  This hand should be opened 1D and when partner bids a major, you now bid 2C. Partner should know that this is a possible pattern for your hand.  If you open 1C as you did, partner will often bid a major, and you will have no good rebid.  If you held a gun to my head and forced me against my will to open 1C, I would rebid 1NT.

Tom Kniest

Since I've been strapped with a 1C opener, I rebid 1NT.  Normally, I open this hand 1D because lefty often overcalls in a major and pard doubles, leaving me poorly placed if I opened 1C. 

Roger Lord

Opening 1 Club is clearly wrong.  Opening 1 Diamond leaves 2 Clubs as a convenient rebid.

Tom Oppenheimer

It is appropriate to open this hand one diamond rather than one club in order to avoid responding one no trump with a small doubleton spade.  This makes all rebids on the hand easier and because of the quality of the diamond suit, you prefer a diamond lead from partner if you end up defending.  If the quality of the club suit is much better than the diamonds, I might open one club and plan to rebid 2 clubs.

Nancy Popkin

Yes, we got ourselves in a bit of a dilemma here. To avoid that in the future, always think "What am I going to rebid if partner responds 1D, 1H, or 1S to my opening bid?" In this case, we are worried about what to respond
if partner bids 1 heart in particular, but also if he responds 1 spade. To avoid that problem in the future, we should open 1D instead of 1C. Then we can rebid 2C over 1S. Partner should not expect us to have 5 diamonds and 4 clubs necessarily because she knows the problem, too.

Rod Van Wyk

Having opened 1C, I would rebid 1NT to show the balanced 12 - 14 HCPs. However, with a good 4-card diamond suit, weak clubs, and double spades, I would open 1D and then rebid 2C over the 1H response.

Karen Walker

The doubleton heart is not an issue.  You'd like to have a spade stopper, but that's not a deal breaker for 1NT -- and anything is better than rebidding that awful club suit.  Some would open the "prepared" 1D and rebid 2C, but that strategy has problems, too. 

En Xie

I'd bid 1NT. To rebid your clubs suit you need 6 clubs in the suit. To bid 2D you need at least 16 HCP. 1NT is not a perfect bid, but it's the best bid available now. Personally, I prefer open 1D with the hand, then after partner's 1H, I'd bid 2C.

Milt Zlatic is on a well-deserved vacation and will return in early March.

 

Hand 2 from an A Player

The South hand is: AKQxxx   xxx KJ10 A

The bidding has proceeded:

N      E      S      W

P      P      1S     P

2C* P       ?     

Clearly, game should make, but slam is also a possibility.  I am hoping the Experts will determine if a 2S rebid is forcing or not.  Is 3S forcing?  Is 2NT forcing?  Does 3 Clubs show length?  I have not idea how to bid this hand.  Help!

John Burgener

First of all 2C is suggesting it is conventional. It might be helpful to know what that conventional agreement is. Drury of some form? Ok, originally Drury was a question asking if pard had full opener or not. 2D said less than opener, 2S was full opener, 3S was full opener with extra spades, and 2NT was full opener with only 4 spades. Drury did not even promise a fit. Today the most common is Reverse Drury and it shows a fit! Here the rebid of 2S is minimum or sub-minimum. 3S is an attempt to make partner make the last guess, 2NT is extra values balanced (17 to 19 HCPs) 3C would show club length.

I play Reverse Drury. My rebid would be 2D as my second suit, partner can treat this as a “help suit” and if he then jumps in spades or raises diamonds or cuebids in hearts, I would then cuebid clubs, after that pard must get us to slam. I have shown my hand. If partner cuebids hearts I could use RKC Blackwood, but would not. I might bid 5S telling of extras and again letting partner decide.

Mark Boswell

Since you are going to force this hand to game, and your hand is worth a slam try, your next call should be 4C, which must be a splinter bid.  You should try for slam anytime when if your partner has a perfect minimum, slam is a lay down.  xxxx Ax AQxx  xxx would be such a hand.  The splinter bid allows partner to evaluate his hand for slam purposes (club points are not good).

Tom Kniest

Most rebid 2D with a hand that's a full opener, but wouldn't accept a limit raise; thus 2S would be the weakest bid and non forcing.  I play fit showing jumps by passed hands; thus, if partner had a hand like Jxxx  Ax  AQxxx xx, he could bid 3D over 1S and the only question now is if you bid six or the laydown 7.  With the hand given, I rebid 4C - obviously a slam try since I could have bid game on my own.  Pard will focus on his red suits and maybe we can still get there.  If he doesn't have a heart control, we're not getting any higher than 4.

My methods over Drury include 2NT by opener as Jacoby 2NT, and we use the same responses, although modified from basic Jacoby.

Roger Lord

Whether 2 Clubs is Drury, reverse Drury, or natural, I would jump to 3 Spades, 100% forcing.

Tom Oppenheimer

I assume that 2 clubs is Drury showing spade support.  Most of us play anything other than 2 spades is 100% forcing.  You might start investigating for slam with a 2 diamond bid.  I like a gadget here where 2 no trump by opener is forcing like jacoby and asks the 2 club bidder for further description of the hand.  A 3 level bid is a singleton or void.  A 4 level bid is a good second suit.  3 spades would be extras with no shortness and 4 spades would show the weakest possible hand.  Wouldn't you love it if partner showed up with a singleton or void in hearts?

Nancy Popkin

2C is the old fashioned drury (we do not know if partner has 3 or 4 trumps, but it is about the point range of 10-12). Certainly if partner held xxx, AKQ, Qxx, xxxx, we would have a good chance of making slam, barring a bad trump break or a ruff. But, even though there are other holdings that would produce slam, I was always taught to not play for the perfect hand, and never play for the worst hand. So, it would be best to know what is forcing so we could extract info from partner. Since I sent in this problem, I have no clue.

Rod Van Wyk

After partner shows a limit raise, a sign-off at 4S seems adequate with this hand. Using Reverse Drury, 2S shows a minimum or light opener. I play a 2D rebid as a general force, asking partner to tell me more. That is the way
I would start if I wanted to probe for the perfect fit for slam with this hand.

Karen Walker

2C is Drury?  If so, a 2S rebid shows a sub-minimum opener and 3S is invitational.  2NT and 3C are forcing one round and can be treated as natural game tries. 
You can also agree to use opener's 2NT rebid as an asking bid -- responder answers with the same set of responses as those after a Jacoby 2NT (3 of a new suit shows a singleton, 3S shows a good hand, 4S shows a dead minimum).  That agreement might help you get to a slam, but I think it's a remote possibility.  

En Xie

Assuming 2C shows limit raise in spades, I'd bid 2D with the hand, showing at least game potential hand. I play any bid but 2S as forcing and 2NT as a special asking bid.

Milt Zlatic is on a well-deserved vacation and will return in early March.

Hand 3 from an A Player in a local club game, matchpoints

W is dealer, N/S vulnerable

West

AK87  

xx

xx

AQxxx

East

Qxxx 

xx

AK10xxx

x

 

The bidding has proceeded:

N      E                       S      W

                                         1C

P      1D*                   3H    P (or X?)

P      3S**(X**/P)    P      P

Questions:

1) How should the bidding go for East-West?

2) *for 1D our agreement is to bid up the line, even with a weak hand with 6-9 HCP or more.

3) I assume a double of 3H directly by West is a penalty double.  Please comment if it means something else.

4) 3S** by East should be forcing, showing at least a 4-card suit and probably an opening hand or better.  Please comment on the bid. 

5)  If West were to pass 3H and East were to Double,** instead of bidding 3S, would this be a so called "strength double" showing about 9-10 HCP and not a penalty double or a negative double?  How do you play the double here?

John Burgener

Using your system West must pass over 3H as pard may be very weak. Double shows much more than this. 3S by East was a serious overbid and forcing to game. So the 4S bid by West was easy. Did this get to an easy making game? Great but the bidding was lucky and caused by the rigid adherence to the “bidding-up-the-line” rule. With less than 10HCPs, showing your major, at perhaps your only opportunity, is paramount. Then the 3S raise by West would be justified. Then getting to 4S is reasonable. At matchpoints duplicate, taking chances has its place and the results are important because winning is measure most visible. Having clear agreements that allow the most likely top scoring contracts to be reached and for the fewest disasters is the best way to reach these goals. Bidding diamonds on this actual hand will get partner off to the best lead sometimes, but it is not the best course.

Mark Boswell

This is a perfect example of why should have an agreement that diamonds will be passed in favor of a major without game going values.  Being preempted out of diamonds is tolerable.  Being preempted out of a major is not.  The way you play, East had to treat his hand as forcing to game (or four of a minor) which it should be the way you play it or the way I play it.  A double by East the second round would be for penalties.

Tom Kniest

The first agreement of bidding up the line with a one bid hand should be discarded; bid the major right away with a weak hand. Thus a hand like Qxxx xx KJ10xxx x, bid a spade and rebid 3D over 1NT - showing a weak hand with at least a six card minor.
Not everyone would play 3HX as penalty, but that would be the standard meaning. With this type of hand, West should pass and East should reopen with a double, showing shortness and values; if partner can't rebid spades or NT, the diamonbds are robust enough to rebid. Raise 3S to 4.

Roger Lord

The best way to play double by opener is for takeout with better than a minimum opening bid.  With the minimum-range hand of the question, opener should pass over 3 Hearts.  Then, responder will reopen with a double, to accommodate partner in case he has a "trap pass" with heart length and strength.  (Opener could not have doubled for penalties), and to allow opener to be if he was not trapping.  Opener then bids 3 Spades, over which responder is happy to go to game.

Tom Oppenheimer

West hand should pass 3 hearts as it is too weak for any other action. The East hand should balance with a double, West bids 3 spades and east raises to 4.

Nancy Popkin

My partner and I play that double over 3H by either hand is takeout. Then the other hand can convert if they so choose. So, if the bidding had gone 1C, pass, 1D, 1H, X, the double would show 4 spades or extra value or both. However, when the bid is 3H instead of 1H, obviously West should have a really good hand. Although the West hand is decent, it would not qualify for a double. So, after West passes 3H, East should reopen with a double usually showing shortness in hearts and about 10 or more points. This caters to West converting the double to penalty, rebidding clubs, bidding spades, raising diamonds, or bidding 3NT. Obviously, West would bid 3 spades, and East would have to decide whether to pass or bid 4 spades. At imps, he should bid 4; at matchpoints, it is a decision.

Rod Van Wyk

West should pass over 3H. I play double for penalty. Then East should balance with a double to show his values. West now bids 3S, and East may raise to game.

Karen Walker

West has to pass 3H, as a double (whether pure penalty or not) would show a bigger hand.  East doesn't have enough to bounce back in with 3S, as this would be forcing to game.   A double by East would show values (usually at least 10+ pts.) and is essentially for takeout.  It will be difficult to get to game, but a somewhat pushy double by East will at least get you to 3S. 

An easier auction would be:
       1C    1S
(3H) 3S    4S

En Xie

I'd double with responder's hand. After opener's 3S bid, responder can bid 4S. Responder's 3S bid seems a slightly overbid but not unreasonable.

Milt Zlatic is on a well-deserved vacation and will return in early March.

Hand 4 from an A Player in a local club game, matchpoints

W is dealer, E/W vulnerable

North

AQ  

Jxxx

KQ

KJ10xx

East

10xx 

AKQ109

A9xx

8

E/W Pass throughout

North                            South

1NT                               2D Jacoby Transfer

3H* (2H/3C)                4D** (4C**, 3NT***)

4H                                 5C****(4NT/6H)

5S/6H/6NT

*3H = super accept with 4-card support

**4D (or 4C) = Is this a second suite or a cue bid?

*** 3NT = Julie 3NT, slam try, asking opener to cue bid up the line

4H = to play

****5C = cuebid, may be 2nd round control (3rd suit by responder here should show "shortness" a singleton or a void; 4NT = Key Card 0314 for Hearts; 6H is to play

Questions:

1) How should the bidding go?

2) What is the meaning of a new suit bid by the "transferer" at the 3- or 4-level.  Is it a cuebid or a second suit?

3) Whenever you start cue bidding (after agreeing on the trump suit), at the 3, 4, or 5 level, do you promise 1st round control, or could it show either 1st or 2nd round control?

4) Do you play "Julie 3NT", as described above?

John Burgener

While not the perfect shape, this is a reasonable opening 1NT bid. The Jacoby Transfer to hearts is above reproach. The 3H super accept is too rich for me on 4 to the J, but if my partner made it, I would show my second suit, which is diamonds; again that makes the opener's hand better, is a 4S bid in order? Going beyond game when I have already pushed with this poor suit seems too much. Someone must make a move beyond game, after a 1NT–super accept of the heart transfer by partner the South hand (all the top heart honors, diamond ace, the club singleton) has the cards to make such a move beyond game or even a direct jump to slam reasonable.

Mark Boswell

After the super acceptance, I believe you should put of the breaks.  You lack aces, you have a minimum for your call, and you may have duplicated values (the J of hearts may add little).  If partner cue bids (or if the new bid is a second suit) rather than bids Blackwood, he must be short somewhere (more duplicated values-clubs this time).  I will retreat to 5H over any 5 level cue bid.  The slam is only so so. The slam is not good with a trump lead, and only a little better with a diamond lead.  Only with a club or a spade lead does it become good.  In match points there is another good reason not to bid slam.  You have opened this hand one NT with 2-4-2-5 distribution.  Not everyone will.  You are playing hearts from the right side for the hand and many will not.  You have a greater chance for an over trick from your side vs. the non-no trump openers.  Scoring 30 points more than others is as good as by 530 in MPs.  If you go down in the slam, you will have a bottom or near bottom.

Tom Kniest

If I had the south hand and heard partner rebid 3H over my transfer, showing length and extra strength, I would just RKC and stop in 5 if partner was aceless; otherwise, I'd bid just 6. 4D/3H is a cuebid, not necessarily the A, but denying a black control. However, North might be sheepish about his 3H bid, so I think the south hand has enough to take control. It seems like North could also RKC over 4D - South must have good hearts if no black control, but rather than waiting for partner to take control when you already know the answer, just go for it...and avoid those hesitations that result in slow Blackwood calls and director calls and sometimes committees.
Yes, 3NT is waiting, leaving cheap room for a cuebid - you've already disclosed a nine card plus fit, so it isn't natural.

Roger Lord

Our auction would proceed: 1C - 1H - 3H - 4D - 4S - 4NT - 5C - 6H - P

Five clubs would designate one Keycard (1 or fewer).

Instead, if you open 1 NT, then over responder's 2D, you should bid 2H, NOT 3H.  Then, 3D would be natural and forcing.  The auction might continue 3S by opener, 4C by responder, 4H by opener (clarifying his fit for hearts rather than diamonds), Roman Keycard Blackwood by responder, answer 1 Keycard, then 6H.

Tom Oppenheimer

I would not super accept with 4 bad trump and a hand lacking controls. However, after a super accept a new suit is a cuebid and after partner cuebids spades I would use blackwood. I am not familiar with Julie 3 No trump.



Nancy Popkin

I like 3NT after 3H, asking for cue-bids because I do not have 1st round control of clubs, and I would like to know if partner has it. In answer to question 2, I prefer new suit bids to be cue-bids (we already found a fit;
now we need controls). Once partner denies the club ace, I now know that she has more points that can be in diamonds. It's still going to be a tough auction to get to slam, however. Finally, the hand belongs in hearts, not
no trump. The ace of diamonds provides a place for the spade queen when we are playing in hearts. In no trump, that is not our only problem.

Rod Van Wyk

Over North's 3H, 4D by South shows 1st round control with slam interest. It denies 1st round control of the bypassed suits, spades and clubs. If North now bids 4H, then 5C by South is 2nd round club control. However North should cuebid 4S over 4D. 4H is a useless bid.

Karen Walker

After a two-level acceptance of the transfer, responder's new suit at the three level is a second suit.  After the super-accept, responder's new suit at the four-level is a control bid for slam. 

After the 4D cuebid, North should bid 4S.  His retreat to 4H tells partner he has nothing to cuebid, so South should give up and pass 4H.  It looks like North did the partnership a favor, though, as if he cuebids 4S, South will probably Blackwood and get to what looks to be a pretty ugly slam.

Cuebidding sequences like this one usually identify first-round controls, but there are some benefits to playing Italian-style cuebids (where a cuebid shows a first or second-round control).  The main benefit is that it often stops the cuebidding sequence early in favor of Blackwood.  There are a lot of inferences to discuss, though, so I probably wouldn't trot this out with a casual partner.

En Xie

As opener, I'd bid 2H instead of 3H. It's a 7 losers hand, 3H seems an overbid to me. The new suit bid by transfer-er at 3 level is a second suit. The new suit bid at 4 level is cuebid.

Milt Zlatic is on a well-deserved vacation and will return in early March.

Hand 5 from a B Player in a local club game, matchpoints

E is dealer

I am South holding:

West

KQJx 

9xxxx

Jxx

K

 

N      E     S      W

                                        

       1H    P     1S

P     2H    P      P

X     P      ?

What's my call?

John Burgener

Ouch, this looks bad. The opponents are in a great position to get a top and partner and I, a bottom. An overtrick is more likely than our beating 2H doubled. So what to bid; pard has made a takeout double in the balancing seat. He knows you likely are long in hearts so he wants you to leave the double in if you can, he has clubs, diamonds, maybe some spades, a very few hearts perhaps none and about 10 HCPs. You know your partner; will he allow you to bid and play in 2S, if so, that is your best chance for a plus score. I would make that bid, unless I was sure that pard would not sit for it, and then I would bid 3 diamonds and hope for only a small minus. Maybe they will go on to 3H this you have a chance to beat. The Law of Total Tricks is now on your side and your small hearts are now a big irritant to East.

Mark Boswell

Partner failed to bid a take out double for the minors, failed to bid an unusual 2NT, (failed to bid a sandwich NT if you play it), and failed to reopen with 2NT for the minors.  Partner does not have the minors so looking at the hearts you have he must have spades.  Bid 2S.

Tom Kniest

2S - partner had a flaw which kept him from doubling the first time, so it must be some spade length. If pard corrects that to 3C, then I'll correct to 3D.

Roger Lord

Bid 2 S.  The doubler may pass with 3 or more spades, or he may bid 2NT with 2 or fewer spades to allow partner to choose, over which he will go to 3D.

Tom Oppenheimer

Partner did not double or bid no trump showing the minors at his first opportunity therefore it is likely he holds spades. I would bid 2 spades. The quality of the heart suit is very poor making sitting and converting this double to penalty very risky business.


Nancy Popkin

I am not passing for penalties because we are out-gunned. Over 1H, P, 1S, partner did not make a take-out double. Therefore, he does not have a good hand, or he does not have the perfect distribution of at least 4-4 in the minors, or both. So, my inclination is to bid 2S in case partner has at least 3 spades and 1 or fewer hearts. I feel we are going for a number on this hand, so why go to the 3-level? If partner can't stand it, he can run to his
5-card suit. If it's clubs, I'll correct to diamonds. My biggest fear is that they will make 2 hearts doubled. I would love to find out what the whole layout was.

Rod Van Wyk

2S. Partner has spades and the minors, unless he slept through the 1st round.

Karen Walker

2S.  What's the vulnerability?  If we're red, partner should have an awfully good hand to be butting into this non-fitting auction, but if that's the case, then why didn't he double at his first turn?  Red or white, however, I don't see how he can have great length in the minors, so he must have at least moderate spade length.

En Xie

I'd bid 2S with the hand, hoping partner will know that I have only 4 spades by the fact that I didn't overcall 1S. The 2S bid also denies 4 cards in the minor. Partner can still bid his/her minor suit if there is no fit in spades.  I'd bid 3D if partner bid 3C.

Milt Zlatic is on a well-deserved vacation and will return in early March.

 

 

 

     


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